--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Sergejus Tarasovas"
<s.tarasovas@...> wrote:
> By the way, any ideas why we still do have <ý> in the preterite
> (gýriau, gýrei, gýre:)?
I would like to draw attention to the view sketched by Kortlandt in
Baltistica 21/2, 1985, p. 113-114. It is his contention that the
acute tone ultimately reflects the regular acute of the -s-aorist,
e.g. *girH-s- > *gír-s-. I don't know what to think of this idea,
which as far as I know has remained unnoticed.
Willem