Re: [tied] Slavic accentology: Hirt's law

>
> Speaking of móte:... The word is AP 1 in Lith. and AP a in
> Slavic, but you cannot tell whether that is due to Hirt's
> law or the word was barytonic to begin with. Latv. has
> mâte, where the Brechton would point to *ma:té:~, were it
> not that as far as I know, Hirt's law applied to Latvian as
> well. So, does BS *ma:te:: go with Skt. ma:tá: or with Grk.
> mé:te:r?

Dybo assumes Hirt's law in *ma:te:r comparing it to Vedic final stress but
I think Greek points to original root-stress. Also that would go with PIE
static *méh2te:r, *méh2trs. So there would be no Hirt's law there....
As for the accent, both Slavic and Lithuanian point to a. p. 1 (a).
Latvian would thus be secondary?

Mate

P. S. I would also like to see how does Jens account for the barytone
forms of o-stems of mobile paradigm in BSl considering we derive them from
PIE oxytona...