Hello Piotr,
Unfortunately for you, regarding 'szarka' you have to show us the
missing epenthetic vowel otherwise your argumentation cannot go
further...(of course your insults can go further (but this is only a
detail when your arguments dissapeared))...
So your argumentation regarding 'szarka' CLEARLY STOPPED on this
issue:
1. NO Trace of epenthetic vowel (as in szereda) -->
2. SO NO TRACE OF SLAVIC METHATHESIS ->
3. 'szarka' is not a Slavic Loan
4. remain only Romanian tsarka' as candidate
So for instance we are here....when you have new arguments here
please come back to check them.
Only the Best,
Marius
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:
> On 04-12-03 11:16, alexandru_mg3 wrote:
>
> > Why 'not from Proto-Slavic'? Only to can explain
Hungarian 'szarka'?
> > So the Czechs and Slovaks are from Proto-Slavic but nearby
> > them 'some' 'Slavic dialects' are not from 'Proto-Slavic'?
>
> Don't be silly. Hungarian has _lots_ of old Slavic loans taken not
from
> the modern languages but from the Slavic dialects that were in
contact
> with the Magyars during the early Middle Ages. They were
_descendants_
> of PSl. in the same way that modern Czech and Slovak are. They were
> engulfed and replaced by Hungarian.
>
> Piotr