From: tgpedersen
Message: 35245
Date: 2004-12-02
>the
>
> Isidore of Seville says that 'baia' "bay" was used before
> (by 'veteres') in the sense of 'portum' "port" and that it is
> derived from 'baiulare', "carrying freight", and he guesses that
> word(s) is(are) Hispanic. Every later commentator calls thisas;
> nonsense. Isidore also tells us it's 'baia, baias' like 'familia,
> familias'
>
> According to Löpelmann, 'baia' is Basque and loaned to English,
> Dutch, French, Spanish and Portuguese. With the ba- it looks like
> similar "waterfront words". What would be interesting is if its
> inflection (the unique thing about 'familia' is the f. sg. gen. -
> this must be the case Isidore meant) reflected something about theas
> underlying language (which then can't be Basque); genitive in -s?
> in English and the Scandinavian languages, (similarly caused by aLeafing through a French Etymological Dictionary in the library I
> substrate?).
>