From: Khodadad Rezakhani
Message: 35129
Date: 2004-11-17
Thank you for your reply.I was trying to equate Gk. "theos" and Skt. "deva", thinking Gk. may have dropped F from "deFos" and changed IE'd' to 'th'. If this has no grounding in substance, what is the best etymology of "theos"? I suppose it's from the Gk. root "the", IE "dhe"? I apologise for what must be elementary questions.Also, I've read T. Hudson-Williams' "A Short Introduction to Comparative Grammar (Indo-European); what else is good reading material for novices in this area?Regards,John
Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:On 04-11-16 09:35, bromiosking wrote:
> Is there any evidence that IE 'd' can become Gk 'th'?
The short answer is "no". Have you got any particular words in mind?
Piotr
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