Re: [tied] Latin Perfect (was Re: Reasons)

--- petegray <petegray@...> wrote:

> > > Latin perfects never show o-grade. They all
> show
> > > zero grade. This is
> > > presumably generalised to the whole paradigm
> from
> > > the zero grade plural
> > > forms.
> >
> > I don't think this would generate "fe:ci:" or
> > "e:di:" and "tetuli:", for example, could be from
> > either.
>
> Analogy has played a large part in the long-vowel
> perfects in Latin, though
> some, such as e:di, are clear zero grades. The
> analogy is not only from
> long vowel perfects which are zero grades (e:di,
> se:di e:gi ; vo:vi etc) but
> also from past participle and present forms (e.g.
> ago ~ e:gi : facio ~ ?)
> Facio / fe:ci is still unexplained in some ways
> (e.g. the origin of
> the -c-), but otherwise, these forms are not a
> problem.
>
> e:di < *h1e-h1d-
> tetuli < *te-tl-

I know they could be from either (assuming h1
coloring as in my derivation for PIE optative), but I
don't think tetuli needs analogy since both forms
definitely have the same outcome.

Doesn't a form like fe-feik-e (or something
similar) exist in Oscan or Umbrian, making late
analogy with other verbs with perfect long e unlikely?

I think the -k- is just a regional "stem extension"
used between two vowels.




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