From: petusek
Message: 34126
Date: 2004-09-12
> Yes. I do think that this is part of a cultural and economic exchangeWell, I should not write superior, perhaps "advanced" might be better,
> from the Near and Middle East outwards, but 'superiority'? And of the
> Semitic people specifically? No. I think that it's clear that AnatoliaNo, I do not think you are mad, it sounds logical, I think. (But I may be
> in general, whether it be from Semites, Hattians, Hurrians or what
> have you, were the major influence on northern peoples. However, maybe
> I'm mad but I get the overall impression that the Eastern Mediterranean
> was the source of the neolithic economy that would seed the later
> 'civilisations'.
> Waterways would be an excellent way to haul goods rather than by landOK, that is clear. So, they might have been among the dominant trading
> and, while I'm no sea captain, I'd imagine you can get from Palestine to
> the north coast of the Black Sea without too much trouble. It would just
> take time, but not as much time as dragging the goods across desert,
> forest and tundra :)
> Perhaps the reason for the adoption of the _Semitic_ word for 'seven'Well, if it had been only a), the peoples would have had to adopt more than
> per se is a) because the Semites would have been well connected to the
> Eastern Mediterranean at the time and b) because they might be the source
> of the numerological cult that perhaps stems from something agricultural.
> (I'm thinking a lot lately about how old the concept of the calendar is
> and whether it has bearing on this symbol of seven.)
> > 1. As for FP:But, taking into account, they could have used vessels (your idea) to trade
> > a. Blazek reconstructs *s'eN'c'emä "7" and considers it a borrowing
> > from a Baltic dialectal form (similar to OLith se~kmas "7th")
>
> Yes, well I can accept that the Uralic word for 'seven' was something
> quite different from this and that however one might reconstruct this
> numeral, it is a borrowing in post-IE times from many IE languages
> depending on the branch you're talking about. I can't comment much
> about which IE languages Uralic languages have borrowed from though. It's
> nothing something I've looked into as deeply as you have.
>
>
> > As for its phonetics, could you imagine a direct Ugric TäptE < Semitic
> > *sab`atum? Could this be possible geographically???
>
> No. Semitic was supposed to have been spoken in Palestine/Syria. IE
> and perhaps Tyrrhenian languages would be the only possible intermediaries
> between Ugric and Semitic, so I'd gather that it's most probable thatIf I understand it well, PT *sepa < Ak form sebe or seba, right?
> Ugric loaned the numeral from an IE language. However, don't forget that
> Etruscan also borrowed the numeral (note /sempH/). I'd imagine that the
> preceding Proto-Tyrrhenian word would have been *sempa or *sepa at around
> 3000-2500 BCE and borrowed directly from a Semitic language.