[tied] Re: Etymology of "Warsaw"

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:

> Yes. Such names were originally adjectives of possession. <X-ova>
> stands
> elliptically for 'X's PLACE', where PLACE = any common noun that
> means
> some kind of settlement. The adjective adjusts its gender to the
> gender
> of the omitted noun. In Polish, and of course similarly in other
> Slavic
> languages, the adjective is feminine if PLACE = <wies'> 'village'
> (<
> *vIsI), neuter if PLACE = <siol/o> 'village, settlement', and
> masculine
> if PLACE = <gród> 'fort, enclosure, town' (< *gordU) -- these are
> the
> most common possibilities. Thus, e.g. Lviv < *lIvovU is masculine
> because it was a <horod>, not a mere village, at the time of its
> naming;
> so was the place where I am at the moment, Poznan' < *poznanjI (a
> possessive adjective derived from the personal name Poznan <
> *poznanU),
> as opposed to Warszowa.
>
> Piotr

But what about the river's names?
For Instance the river "Prahova" in Rom. is supposed to got its name
from Slavs. Can it be true or the river should have been called after
a settlement whith a feminine noun? If the river got its name from a
settlement, then "prag-", "prah" as feminine noun in Slavic will mean
what? (for making of prah+ova)

Alex