From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 33845
Date: 2004-08-24
>No.
> The Russian adj. inflection in m.nom. has ´-yj, but when stressed
> it's -ój.
> Now here's a hen-or-egg discussion:
> 1) did the /o/ attract the stress? or
> 2) did the stress change the /y/ to /o/?
> Note this German example:the
> nom. das warme Wasser
> dat. dem warmen Wasser "the warm water"
> cf. without demonstrative
> nom. warmes Wasser
> dat. warmem Wasser "warm water"
> Note the endings of the adj.!
>
> Now why does German do that? I think because the
> otherwise-inflected demonstrative acts as a left bracket to the
> noun's right bracket; in other words, it delimits the extent of the
> NP in the sentence. That device seems so useful that Germans don't
> want to give it up even when there's no demonstrative present in
> NP, so they add the endings that the demonstrative would have had,More to the point, the article and the strong adjective are the
> to the first member, namely an adjective, of the present NP.