Re: IE lexical accent

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham"
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:

> [...] I
> have a hard time convincing myself that the first syllable of
> English <sitting> is open, but I don't believe I say [sI?tIN]. I
> want to put the [t] in both syllables! On the other hand, I do
> syllabify <singing> [sIN-IN], while I know there actually are

people

> who syllabify it [sI-NIN].

What is your criterion here? Is there much point in discussing
whether the partition between the two major syllabic peaks
constituted by the vowels of <sitting> is before the consonant,
after the consonant or somehere inside it? Is there really a
physical difference?

>
> However, if *pedos was [pet:ás], as Glen believes, perhaps the

first

> syllable was closed!

He did not say anything about a special treatment of b, d, g (his
p:, t:, k:, I guess) in this respect. Why should I read that into
his words just to save his face? What we can say about *pedós in
this respect is that the /e/ is short and followed by a single
consonant plus a vowel. Within the limited knowledge at our disposal
that makes the first syllable open; otherwise the distinction has no
meaning that I can see.

> > The regular restrictions on clustering I have found have done
> > away with much of the ignorance and confusion you are so mad
> about. I
> > would not be averse to presenting them on this list if anybody

is

> really
> > interested in the matter.
>
> I would be interested in hearing the rules, though perhaps as a
> fresh topic.

Thank you, I'll be more than happy to oblige.

Jens