Re: IE lexical accent

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer@...>
wrote:

> On Fri, 16 Jul 2004 enlil@... wrote:

> > By the way, the *e in eLIE *pedás was in a _closed_ syllable

because

> > it is part of a CVC stem. The word is properly syllabified not as
> > **/pe.dás/ but as */ped.ás/. In the eLIE perfect, 3ps *bHebHára

is

> > also properly syllabified as */bHebH.bHár.a/ while in the would-

be

> > *i-reduplicatives such as *bHebHérati it was */bHe.bHér.a.ti/. So
> > naturally, the *e in an open syllable will be phonetically

longer and

> > more prone to rising to *i.
>
> No matter what *you* call it, the first vowel of *pedo's is not in

a

> closed syllable. Again you have to change the meaning of the

technical

> terms to avoid confessing to a blatant error. You would have used

it in

> evidence if you had only said "open", for then it would be right

(if

> perhaps not relevant). Now you said the opposite, on record at

that, so

> you have to make special pleading of the most pitiful kind.

He's certainly complicated the phonology (dropped the razor?), but I
have a hard time convincing myself that the first syllable of
English <sitting> is open, but I don't believe I say [sI?tIN]. I
want to put the [t] in both syllables! On the other hand, I do
syllabify <singing> [sIN-IN], while I know there actually are people
who syllabify it [sI-NIN].

However, if *pedos was [pet:ás], as Glen believes, perhaps the first
syllable was closed!

> The regular restrictions on clustering I have found have done
> away with much of the ignorance and confusion you are so mad

about. I

> would not be averse to presenting them on this list if anybody is

really

> interested in the matter.

I would be interesting in hearing the rules, though perhaps as a
fresh topic.

Richard.