Re: [tied] Re: Bader's article on *-os(y)o

Me:

>It doesn't make sense why this /-dem/ should start with /id-em/
>because where then does /id-em/ come from? As has already been
>mentioned, practically all Sanskrit pronouns end in -am but this
>is identical with -am in /aham/, which we know to come from *egxom
>as shown in Greek as well.

Miguel:

> Greek <ego:> shows no such thing.

Greek /ego:n/ shows former *-m, the 1ps non-indicative. It is the
1ps that was spread to all pronouns in Sanskrit as /-am/.

> The connection between Lat. id-em and Skt. id-ám looks
> pretty obvious and solid to me.

It looks as "obvious" to me as IE *ego and Tagalog /ako/ being
related. Similarities and false lookalikes happen all the time.
That's the best argument you can come up with?


= gLeN