From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 32821
Date: 2004-05-21
>As a side note, do you think that the *-men- ending is related to theThat suffix is *-mh1n-ó-, so no.
>middle participial suffix, or just a coincidence?
>> No, it's not compensatory lengthening. The vowel isNo.
>> lengthened even if the *-s remains (**pód-z > *pó:ds).
>
>So in Vedic pa:t, the long /a/ is not from compensatory lengthening
>due to loss of word-final /s/?
>> There are in fact two rules:a resonant (m,l,r,n,w,y) (R) followed by the thing that
>>
>> (1) V > V: /_C(C)z#
>> (2) z > 0 / R_#,
>>
>> that do not necessarily go together.
>
>What does "R_#" mean?
>> In this case, the long vowel is simply a consequence of theThey usually came in packs.
>> morphology: compound nouns make their collective form by
>> lengthening the suffix vowel and stressing it [+ a rule
>> against two consecutive long vowels] (*wá:d-an > *wódr,
>> coll. *wad-á:n > *udór+h2 > *udó:r).
>
>Yet why would a word for 'dog' be a collective?
>> In the case of standard proterodynamic nouns, the o-grade isI don't know. The secondary accent, I suppose.
>> caused by an automatic lengthening of the posttonic
>> (svarita) syllable, _if_ the preceding syllable is light:
>>
>> *h2ák^-man-z > *h2ák^-ma:n-z > *h2ák^-mon-z > h2ák^-mo:n
>> *h2ák^-man-m > *h2ák^-ma:n-m > *h2ák^-mon-m > h2ák^-mon-m.
>> *h2ak^-mán-as > *h2ak^-mán-a:s > *h2k^-mén-os
>
>What causes the automatic lengthening?
>> Szemerényi lengthening occurs at this point (it *has* to beV > V: /_C(C)z#
>> before zero grade, and also before the shortening of /o:/ in
>> closed syllables), and a schwa affected by it lengthens to
>> something that eventually turns up as /o:/:
>
>Apologies for my ignorance, but what exactly is Szemerényi
>lengthening?