Re: [tied] Bader's article on *-os(y)o

On Thu, 20 May 2004 21:52:20 +0000, Rob
<magwich78@...> wrote:

>As a side note, do you think that the *-men- ending is related to the
>middle participial suffix, or just a coincidence?

That suffix is *-mh1n-ó-, so no.

>> No, it's not compensatory lengthening. The vowel is
>> lengthened even if the *-s remains (**pód-z > *pó:ds).
>
>So in Vedic pa:t, the long /a/ is not from compensatory lengthening
>due to loss of word-final /s/?

No.

>> There are in fact two rules:
>>
>> (1) V > V: /_C(C)z#
>> (2) z > 0 / R_#,
>>
>> that do not necessarily go together.
>
>What does "R_#" mean?

a resonant (m,l,r,n,w,y) (R) followed by the thing that
changes [here /z/] (_) followed by end-of-word (#).

>> In this case, the long vowel is simply a consequence of the
>> morphology: compound nouns make their collective form by
>> lengthening the suffix vowel and stressing it [+ a rule
>> against two consecutive long vowels] (*wá:d-an > *wódr,
>> coll. *wad-á:n > *udór+h2 > *udó:r).
>
>Yet why would a word for 'dog' be a collective?

They usually came in packs.

>> In the case of standard proterodynamic nouns, the o-grade is
>> caused by an automatic lengthening of the posttonic
>> (svarita) syllable, _if_ the preceding syllable is light:
>>
>> *h2ák^-man-z > *h2ák^-ma:n-z > *h2ák^-mon-z > h2ák^-mo:n
>> *h2ák^-man-m > *h2ák^-ma:n-m > *h2ák^-mon-m > h2ák^-mon-m.
>> *h2ak^-mán-as > *h2ak^-mán-a:s > *h2k^-mén-os
>
>What causes the automatic lengthening?

I don't know. The secondary accent, I suppose.

If root and suffix were originally two separate words, say
/xákV mánV/, univerbation resulted in /xák-màn/ with
secondary accent on the suffix (unless it was the suffix
that got the stress, as in hysterodynamic nouns). Perhaps
the loss of the vowel in between the two segments also
played role. The net result was lengthening, unless the
root itself was already long (contained a long vowel and/or
ended in a consonant cluster), or the suffix was heavy
(ended in a consonant cluster [there are no suffixes with
inherent long vowel]).

In the case of *h2ak^-mán-a:s, I think the lengthening
resulted from retraction of the stress. Again, if we had
two separate "words" /xak(V)/ and /man(V)/, the final
(inflected) element would have inflected like a root noun
(i.e. end-stressed): /xák(V) manás(V)/. After univerbation,
this became /xak-mán-a:s/, with the accent shifted one
syllable to the right as compared with the nom/acc
(xák-ma:n-), but with the original stressed syllable of the
suffix lengthened.

>> Szemerényi lengthening occurs at this point (it *has* to be
>> before zero grade, and also before the shortening of /o:/ in
>> closed syllables), and a schwa affected by it lengthens to
>> something that eventually turns up as /o:/:
>
>Apologies for my ignorance, but what exactly is Szemerényi
>lengthening?

V > V: /_C(C)z#

in other words, the "nominative lengthening".


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...