Re: [tied] Bader's article on *-os(y)o

From: elmeras2000
Message: 32798
Date: 2004-05-20

--- In, enlil@... wrote:
> Evidence of supposed 'enclitic accent shift' besides *wedén-i?
That's a very widespread phenomenon in IE quite obviously of PIE
age. Greek places an accent on the final of words followed by an
enclitic, even Latin does that. There is also underlying (at times
overt) accent before added enclitic particles in Balto-Slavic. The
Avestan shortening in ca{th}{bh}aras-ca as opposed to ca{th}{bh}
a:ro: 'four' is commonly explained as reflecting an advancement of
the accent seen in Vedic catvá:ras to the syllable before the
enclitic -ca. The special prominence of the syllable before an
enclitic (before the first enclitic if there are more) is reflected
in Old Irish and Hittite alike. The use of this rule to account for
the ablaut of the locative, however, is my own extension of it. It
would be the first example of ablaut consequences of that accent