From: enlil@...
Message: 32744
Date: 2004-05-19
> The problem is that there isn't a great deal of evidence at _my_But wasn't there previous talk about Latin /fers/ showing that it
> disposal. The present stem of all the Greek athematic verbs I can
> think of ends in a vowel (not -l/n/r) and I don't understand the 2s
> imperfect of Greek eîmi 'go'.
> You are libelling me again. Logic is not invalid because theAlright, what did I miss?
> premiss is false; false premisses simply result in unproven
> conclusions.
>> No, I told you. The 2ps *-es is by analogy with *-esi.I am saying that "the 2s in *-es was refashioned after the length
>
> I presume that means we don't get the contrast out of one vowel
> and one consonant. You appear to be saying that the 2s in *-es was
> refashioned after the length distinction in the thematic vowel
> ceased to be allophonic. The only real justification then for not
> saying that **-/os/ (equivalent to **-/as/) was replaced by *-es is
> that thematic *o and some non-thematic *o were distinct in PIE -
> Brugmann's law does not apply to thematic vowels.
> Should I counsel you to get some rest and keep taking the pills?Pills, yummy.
> Nostratic *t ~*s > PIE **s ~**z in PIE final position. (I presumeAll I see is that you're comparing languages that are so far distant
> you think I meant Nostratic **s ~**z).