[tied] Re: Question about o-infix

From: elmeras2000
Message: 32606
Date: 2004-05-14

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:
> Jens:
> > It does not get *psd-éye-ti right, though, but why would it be
> > completely perfect the first time around?
>
> What's *psd-eye-ti? "Cause to fart"? Oh my. If so, while I'd expect
> *posd-eye-, being that it's an expressive root, it's not the best
> counterexample.

Its just "fart" (Greek bdéo:). The whole point about the o/zero
alternation in formations with the suffix *-éye- is that they do not
normally show the causative meaning. The forms that are really used
as causatives practically all have -o- which will then be a simple
case of restitution. Even expressive words are facts and may take
part in the development of a language; this one has no expressive
morphology that I can see. It may still be doubted, but the best
basis for ding that would be to quote a positive example of what the
structure does give if not this, i.e. a verb of the structure *posd-
éye- without causative meaning. Do you know any to decide the
question?

Jens