--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...>
wrote:
> I may get my ears mangled, but I'll venture it: How many cases of
o-
> infix might explained as a result of the form containing it (eg.
> causative) hypothetically originally having reduplication
(remember
> perf. sg.)?
None, I believe. Unless one adds the unsupported assumptions that
reduplication was here reduced to the prestage of the o-infix and
that reduplication has a different origin where it does appear. That
will separate the perfect and the o-infix formations again. Note
that the -o- of the perfect only appears und the accent, while the o-
infix formations *mon-éye-ti, *tomH1-á-H2 have it specifically
unaccented.
Jens