--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Âàäèì Ïîíàðÿäîâ" <ponaryad@...>
wrote:
>
> > Yes, but <Xarri> is the self-designaton of the Indo-Iranians and
is
> > therefore a loanword in the Assyrian text. So my money I still on
> > Möller to be the first to recognize a laryngeal in a written
> > representation of an IE gloss.
>
> Do this <Xarri> in Assyrian mean exactly Indo-Iranians? And what
was the time when the text was written? If it is the beginning of the
1st millenium BC when Iranians were in a close contact with
Assyrians, the IE laringeals had surely been lost in Indo-Iranian
long before.
Which reminds me of the theory on the origin of the Assyrians in a
book on ancient astronomy the name the author of which escapes me,
that they were a Semitic people that conquered a previously IE-
speaking area, and that therefore the name Assur of their supreme god
is really a Proto-II or Proto-Indic loanword *asura. Now the question
is, is 'Assur' spelled with a laryngeal (although laryngeals were
lost in Assyrian by the time of the texts)?
Torsten