From: alex
Message: 31505
Date: 2004-03-22
----- Original Message -----
From: "P&G" <petegray@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, March 21, 2004 9:25 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Accusative was allative
> >And why is there all
> > this *-s/*-i confusion in both gen.sg. and nom.pl.?
>
> Pardon me butting in. What *-s/*-i confusion? As far as I'm aware,
only
> Greek and Latin have regularly replaced the old PIE nom plural with
an -i
> ending, and only Latin regularly shows any -i forms in the genitive.
>
> Peter
Only Greek and Latin? It seems Albanians did the same. Romanian and
Italian is considered to have their nominative pl in "i" from Latin but
this appears to be a wrong consideration. Seems the nominative pl in "i"
was used wide in the nord side of Mediteranean area.
Alex