Re: [tied] Perfect of Vedic i-

> >My questions is: the Vedic perf. of i "go" is iyâya (3.sg.) and

îyúr

> >(3.pl), how have these forms developed? If we follow LIV's
> >reconstruction *h2ej-,
>
> You mean *h1ej-?

Yes, of course. *h2ej- would give Greek *aimi and not eimi. A slip
there ...

> >I would expect a development *h2e-h2oi- > *Ha-
> >ai- > *ai-/âi- > Vedic *e-/ai-/ây (2.sg. *e-tha or *aitha, 3.sg.

*ây-

> >a)
> >
> >Does anybody have the explanation?
>
> The reduplication vowel is /i/ (or /u/) in Vedic for roots
> starting with i- (or u-) [in the zero grade] (cf. /uc/ "be
> pleased" : uvóca, u:cé).

Ah, of course! Not always easy to remember that Vedic has had
innovations too :)

> 2sg. *h1i-h1ói-tHa > *i:áytha > iyétha
> 3sg. *h1i-h1óy-e > *i:á:ya > iyá:ya
> 3pl. *h1i-h1y-r's > i:yúr

Except that the pre-Vedic forms would have a short *i-, not *i:-,
since the *h1 drops between vowels without lengthening.

Sverre Johnsen