From: Abdullah Konushevci
Message: 31281
Date: 2004-02-29
> 29-02-2004 00:28, mkelkar2003 wrote:Aryan
>
> > "For example, a hypothesis was advanced regarding the original
> > homeland of the Indo-Europeans taking the postulated world *mori,
> > "sea" to have been known only in Europe and Ossetic. But this is
> > wrong since these linguists d(o) not know that Kashmiri, an Indo-
> > language, has precisely the same word in the orginal meaning ofswamp,
> > marsh land or lake (p. 27)."at any
>
> The distribution of *mori- means nothing by itself -- not enough
> rate to base any hypotheses on. At most, its attested semanticssuggests
> that the people who had it in their vocabulary lived not far fromsome
> kind of 'big water'. If the word was really PIE it may have beenlost in
> some groups for whatever reason. If Ossetic mal 'a body of deepwater'
> indeed comes from inherited *marja- < *mor-j-o- (cf. Slavic*morje)
> rather than being a loan, that can only mean that the word didexist in
> Proto-Iranian and has been lost in most of its offspring (cf. PIEIranian).
> *pork^o- 'young pig', _almost_ but not _completely_ lost in Indo-
>days
> > Even in Marathi "mori" means a place to wash, which in the old
> > before plumbing must have meant a place where water is readilyindicate a
> > available. In an urabn environment people now use it to
> > bathroom or sometimes a sink. This goes back to my originalcomment
> > about Indian scholars, for whatever reason, and i am notaccusing any
> > one of anything, being marginalized in the field of IElinguistic.
>*mori-
> I leave the etymology to professional Indologists, who are better
> qualified to judge if we are dealing with a surviving reflex of
> or with a chance resemblance. It's beyond my understanding in whatway
> this question is connected with your original comment. Anyway, theOT
> linguistic question is welcome here, but, please, let's keep the
> stuff out of Cybalist.************
>
> Piotr