From: tgpedersen
Message: 31124
Date: 2004-02-16
> On Mon, 16 Feb 2004 12:55:59 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>a
> wrote:
>
> >>
> >> At the risk of repeating myself, I prefer to explain the *-s as
> >thirde
> >> person ending, derived either from [the nominative **su of] *s(w)
> >(whichthe
> >> was a 3rd. person pronoun before it became a reflexive) or the
> >> demonstrative *so. The original aorist paradigm would have been:
> >>
> >> *déik^-m *dik^-més
> >> *dé(:)ik^-s *dik^-té
> >> *dé(:)ik^-s *dik^-é(:)r-s
> >>
> >
> >Now this reminds one of the state of Old Norse and Northern Old
> >English, which is usually described as something like 'the 3rd sg
> >took on the endings of the 2nd sg' which might adquately describe
> >situation, but doesn't make much lingustic sense to me.Watkins'
>
> The converse (3rd. person influencing other persons) is known as
> Law. That doesn't mean that 2nd. person can never have aninfluence on
> 3rd. or other persons (especially, I would think, in the imperativeand
> modal forms like conjunctive/optative). My paradigm above reflectsneither
> Watkins' law nor anything similar to the Old Norse situation: theending
> *-s is here simply the fortuitous merger of the original 2nd.person ending
> **-tu and the original third person ending **-su.I am curious as to what universe you are living in: are 'fictitious'
>