From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 30983
Date: 2004-02-12
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:It's obvious.
>> On Wed, 11 Feb 2004 15:12:29 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
>> wrote:
>>
>> >Here's the interesting part: it turns out that Basque -tz-
>> >corresponds to Aquitanian <-x->, presumably -ks-
>>
>> Certainly not /ks/.
>
>And how do you know that?
>> >(BTW for some oddYou must have misunderstood...
>> >reason the French Basques still spell -x- for -tz-)
>>
>> They don't.
>>
>They once did, then. I found that in Trask.
>> The spelling is actually quite random:Isn't it obvious? What other letter in the Latin alphabet would you
>>
>> Basque Aquitanian examples:
>> z ss (gizon) cisson
>> s (gizon) cison
>> (zahar) sahar
>> tz x (haritz) arixo
>> (beltz) belex
>> (bihotz) bihox
>> s (beltz) beles
>> (bihotz) bihos
>> (bortz) bors
>> (hartz) hars
>> s s (neskato) nescato
>> (seme) sembe
>> (sehi) seni
>> ts s (herauts) heraus
>> x (otso) oxo
>> xs (otso) oxson
>> ss (otso) osso(n)
>>
>>
>> Trask: "The unsystematic fluctuation among <s>, <ss>, <x> and <xs>
>> strongly suggests that Aq. had more contrating sibilants than could be
>> accomodated in the Roman alphabet [] It appears that the otherwise
>> unneeded <x> was pressed into service to deal with some of the Aq.
>> sibilants, but that no consistent system of transcription was achieved"
>
>Yes, but why <x>?