Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

>If all Latin words with non-ablauting /a/ are borrowed, then all
>Latin words with <ca-> are borrowed. But the occurrence of /a/ after
>supposed plain velars in Latin was the main argument for the
>existence of those plain velars in PIE! So:
>Plain velars don't exist!

(b) The main argument for the existence of plain velars in PIE is the
correspondence:
Centum /k/ ~ Satem /k/
It has nothing to do with the vowel that follows.

(a) A number of ca- words in Latin show an impeccable PIE pedigree, eg capio
~ Germanic have. Calens / Kalens ~ kaleo in Greek. canis ~ kuo:n in
Greek. I don't think you can say all Latin words with <ca-> are borrowed!

Peter