Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

> The initial *o- of a small number of secured formations is the same
> element as the medial *-o- of the numerous formations of the types
> *tomH1-á-H2 'cut', *tomH1-ó-s 'cutting, sharp', *mon-éye-ti 'makes
> think' (caus.), *tór-mo-s 'hole' (*terH1- 'bore'), *kor-mó-

s 'stump'

> (*ker- 'cut'). This element, which is generally treated as if it
> were a special appearance of the root-vowel, behaves
> morphophonemically as if it were a consonant.

I 'm not attacking, just seeking clarification.
In what way is it the same element as the -o- of the ablauting vowel? Do
you mean just phonetically the same? Or something more?
How does it behave morphophonemically as if it were a consonant? This
implies that there is some morphophonemic pattern we can observe. What?

(Or should I wait till I can get my hands on that article?)

Peter