From: altamix
Message: 30859
Date: 2004-02-08
> 1pl: _porta:mus_ > *purtam. Vowel changed to that of 3rd person,for imperfect is the same "u": purtam; the change is /a/ to /ã/ and that
> possibly also to avoid homonymity with the imperfect.
> 2pl: _porta:tis > *purtate. 2nd person ending replaced, yieldingactually this is "purtatzi"
> _portatzi_.
> Simple perfect:actually is "purtai"
> 1s: porta:vi: > purtavi > _portai_
> At some point _dedi:_ or its derivative was replaced by dedui, whichI guess yes. stãtui is the usual form, but there is too "stetei" and
> in turn has been replaced by dãdui, the last surviving reduplicated
> perfect in Romance. Or has _a sta_ also retained a reduplicated
> perfect?
>why "*doarmie"? there is the IV conjugation with regular /e/ from /it/.
>>> Rule (2) might explain why the 3s of _$ti_ 'know' is _$tie_,
>>> compared to Latin _scit_.
>>
>> I guess there is another explanation. The verbs of Conj. IV which
>> ends in "-i" have for 3 sg. "-e"
>>
>> a Sti > Stie, a dormi > doarme, a fugi > fuge, a sui > suie, a veni >
>> vine, etc.
>
> Yes, but note that we have _doarme_, not *doarmie, _fugi_ not
> *fugie, _veni_ not *venie. In the case of _sui_, is not the <i> a
> hiatus breaking glide?
>> Prf. smpl.: - (V)i, -(VS)i, -V, -(Vra)m, -(Vra)Ti, -actually there are just the present paradigms of regular verbs in all
>> (Vra)V
>> -------------------------------------------------------------------
>> -----
>>
>> Stable & simple. Synthetic, natural?
>
> The table is a mess, and wrong in several ways
> Richard.Alex