Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

From: Glen Gordon
Message: 30238
Date: 2004-01-29

Mate:
>And I see no problem in multiple satemization.

It's logically unnecessary when it can be explained with a single event.
Since it CAN be explained with a single event, your speculation is
unwarranted.

However, just to clarify, the "satem event" may be described by
two changes (1. *k > *k^, 2. *kW > *k) that are common to all
satem languages. As to the actual sibilantization of the velar stop
however (which may be your definition of satemization), it must
in fact be due to seperate events (at least two) in different satem
dialects that were predispositioned by the first two changes. If
you were referring to the latter "sibilantization", then we agree.


>But you have to admit that the evidence for PIE *a is very slim.

No. I used to think so and then I was enlightened to important facts.
While the vowel is less frequent than *e and *o (naturally, due to
ablaut patterns), it does exist independently of colouring. It is a
phoneme all its own and must be reconstructed in IE. There simply
is no vowel system without a low vowel so it would be absurd to
reconstruct an untenable sound system. Thus, both the attestations
showing *a and the evidence from world languages shows that
what you're saying is not possible.

Hopefully you'll take note of the evidence.


= gLeN

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