Re: The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 30169
Date: 2004-01-28

On Wed, 28 Jan 2004 12:12:11 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
wrote:

>On the question of palatal vs palatalised (now I can't find the
>thread) I think palatalised must mean something that can be de-
>palatalised (unlike palatal), it must have a rubber band attached;
>which is: participation in a paradigm in which that sound (velar)
>alternates between palatalised and non-palatal,

Not necessarily. And certainly not in the case of PIE *k and *k^, which do
not alternate significantly.

It's simply a question of articulation. For a palatal stop, the closure is
made at the hard palate by the front of the tongue. For a palatalized
stop, the closure is made at the appropriate labial, coronal or radical
locus, but simultaneously the front of the tongue is raised towards the
hard palate (as in producing the vowel /i/). For coronal and radical
(velar/uvular) stops, this does affect the place of articulation somewhat
(/t'/ is usually more back than /t/, /k'/ is more front than /k/), but the
gesture is quite distinct from that of a palatal stop.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...