[tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 12:34:53 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
> wrote:
>
> >To me at least, some varieties of Spanish <-g-> sounds like /G/ or
> >even /?/ (I think I've heard /Tara?oTa/ for <Zaragoza>).
>
> Like all voiced stops, Spanish /g/ is realized as a continuant

everywhere

> except in absolute initial position and after nasal.

But does that not mean that it's realized as /G/ in the vicinity of
back vowels, and as /y/ in the vicinity of front ones? Then my
proposal would work.

> >Could this
> >variation have played a role in /yo/ > /igo/ (after /l^o/ > /lyo/
> >and /n^o/ > /nyo/?
>
> No. The -g- was apparently introduced after hago, perhaps by an

analogy

> similar to the one that brought about ven^o -> vengo. Lat. faceo

would

> have given *hayo (regular) ~ hago (yod-deletion) [cf. the

subjunctive

> faceat > haya, vulg. haiga], and then also cayo ~ caigo. The

insertion of

> -g- only occurs if the stem vowel is /a/ or /o/. If the vowel

is /i/ or

> /e/, /j/ is simply deleted (video > veyo > veo, credeo > creyo >

creo,

> rideo > riyo > río).
>

Torsten