Re: [tied] Baltic-Slavic disintegration

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:

>>>>> Alexander, there is no proof for Thracian as being a Satem
>>>>> language beside some wild guesses. There is absolutely nothing
>>>>> where we know about the meaning of a certain Thracian word for
>>>>> sure
>>>>
>>>> What about "Rizas" for instance?!
>>>
>>> is this a glosse`?
>>
>> Or "Resa(s)", the name of the king, actually meaning `king`, from
>> the obvious PIE root "reg^-" (Pokorny 1589), cognate with a bunch
>> of other well-known `king` words in IE.
>
> that is a name and not a glosse.

It is the glossed "name" of a Thracian king.

> You use the word "cognate" here since you think or you get the
> opinion of other people this name must mean "king". Is there any
> reason beside a wild guess "why" this name must mean king?

It is the regular confusion for a foreigner when asking: "who's
the strong guy in front of the army" (or any other instance) and
getting the answer "the king", but in another language, the one
of the army (or local language). The word for `king` in the other
language can be used (and examples are not missing) to depict:
a) that particular king (confusion with his personal name);
b) generic name for the other people's king (as nowdays, if one
says "Kaiser" it obviously refers to some German emperor, or
"Tsar" refers to major Slavic rulers).
In this case, the confusion is straightforward (be it a) or b)).

Marius Iacomi