Re: [tied] Middle English Plurals

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> >As I recall Brian's argument, the difference
> >between a creole and a proper language was that if enough of the
> >development stages of a language is known so that we may follow its
> >development in detail, then it is not a creole, otherwise it is. In
> >other words the status of a language is determined not by a

property

> >of that language, but by a property of our knowledge of it.
>
> I am not sure if you are agreeing with this or not. But either

way, it is

> nonsense. I have posted to this list once before - the last time

this topic

> came up, or the time before - a list of about six "properties of

language"

> which creoles can be expected to show. It's all there in the

standard

> literature.
>

What I can't get into my head is this: Why is that when English and
French speakers conquer the world, creoles pop up left right and
center, but when PIE speakers do the same to Europe and India, and
similar social conditions ensue, nothing of that kind happens?

Torsten