--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "studey22" <lookwhoscross-
eyednow@...> wrote:
> Torsten, what is your opinion as to the origin of the 28% non-Indo-
> European in Germanic? What would a more plausible theory than the
> Nordwestblock be? And if the Nordwestblock area is not non-Indo-
> European, then what else can it be shown to be? Can it be shown
that
> it was more likely to have been Germanic or Celtic? In Times
> Historical Atlas the Nordwestblock was suggested to be Indo-
European
> but not Celtic or Germanic.
>
The homeland of the 28% language (or one part of it, there might be
several languages hiding in the 28%) should fulfill two criteria:
1) It should be located in an area that was colonised by the
Swebians/early Germani/Thuringians/Hermunduri before any expansion to
the west (Nordwestblock) or the north (Denmark, Sweden).
2) Since the words <ship> and <sea> are part of that language, its
homeland should be near the sea.
Solution: Lower Elbe, around Hamburg. According to Kuhn, the
Nordwestblock area was Germanified, as it were, in a pincer movement,
one Germanic branch spreading along the German North Sea coast (and
another moving into the Rhineland). It is noteworthy that an inland
people like the Hermunduri take to the sea that fast. Perhaps their
first "converts" on the lower Elbe helped them with maritime
technology.
Torsten