From: m_iacomi
Message: 28897
Date: 2003-12-29
>>> Spanish _vecino_ and French _voisin_ point to *ve:ci:nus (orAlmost right. My point is that Romance words do not point definitely
>>> *vici:nus).
>>
>> Why?! We deal with unstressed vocalism. Cf. Varvaro - "Linguistica
>> Romanza", for instance: "nel sistema 'romanzo comune' [Latin] i
>> [short] e: e [short] hanno dato /e/ [...] nel sistema balcanico
>> la serie anteriore รจ la stessa". So "vici:num" (short unstressed
>> /i/ only) could explain Spanish <vecino>; OTOH, French <voisin>
>> and OF <veisin> are usually explained through VL "*veci:nus".
>
>>> Although Italian _vicino_ appears to derive from _vi:ci:nus_,
>>
>> If you start up with "vi:ci:nus" (which is CL), you'll end up
>> with Romanian "*vicin" which could arguably dissimilate into
>> modern "vecin" (Rohlfs admits it too for Italian). Conversely,
>> you may try "vici:nus" or "*veci:nus" (as for French); unstressed
>> Latin /e/ does not go always in /&/ even in the first syllable:
>> "venenum" > "venin", "venire" > "veni", "berbecem" (CL "vervex") >
>> "berbec(e)", etc.
>
> You seem to be making the point that all the forms could derive from
> any of *veci:nus, *ve:cinus and *vici:nus.
> You argue that Romanian _vecin_ might derive from LatinSpeaking only about Romanian, yes, through the aforementioned
> _vi:ci:nus_;
> why do you boldly assert that Italian _vicino_ does not (asActually Garzanti mentions as etymon only "vici:nus", with no
> opposed to need not) derive from _vi:ci:nus?
> Information from other dialects?Both forms (with /e/ and /i/) appear in Italian dialects. Tuscan
> The cleanest explanation is to derive all forms from a single proto-As stated, CL form is "vi:ci:nus", regular derivative of "vi:cus".
> form. I can explain *ve:ci:nus (derivative from attested by-form
> _ve:cus_ of _vi:cus_). *vici:nus would be a dissimilatory
> shortening.