[tied] Re: Prakrit cha 'six'

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Andy Howey <andyandmae_howey@...>
wrote:

> David:
>
> According to Colin P. Masica in _The Indo-Aryan Languages_
> (Cambridge Language Surveys, 1991), Vedic "was based apparently
> on a far western dialect, perhaps influenced by Iranian". That's
> as opposed to Sanskrit, which he says was based on a midland
> dialect. If that's indeed the case, and if at least some of the
> Prakrits were derived from the same source as Vedic, then that
> could bear out your hypothesis. What do you think?
>
> Andy Howey

Well I gave Avestan and Ossetic examples only because they were
the first ones to come to mind, not because I intented to argue
for Iranian influence in this case. I also can't call it _my_
hypothesis since I'm fairly sure I read the idea somewhere. I
simply can't remember where, or I would have named my source.
In any case, if some far western forms of Old Indo-Aryan really
did share the *kWs(w)eks- variant with Iranian, then I think it's
more likely a shared isogloss, rather than due to later Iranian
influence.

David