From: tgpedersen
Message: 27872
Date: 2003-12-01
>therefore
> > >To which one might argue that whoever designed Latin orthography
> > >didn't want a stem to alternate as much as *-em, *-in-, and
> > >made an allowance for "etymological spelling" in such cases.the actual
>
> Latin orthography was not "designed" in that sense, but reflects
> pronunciation at a certain period, and changed as the pronunciationchanged.
> Therefore if an original *-em *-in- stem noun were altered to -en -in-, it
> would be speakers who did it, and the cause would be analogicallevelling.
> But there is no evidence for such a paradigm (*-em *-in-) and a lotof
> evidence against it. So I think we're stuck with Latindistinguishing PIE
> *m. from PIE *n. like it or not.I didn't propose *-em-, *-in- stems. I proposed *-e~- *-in- stems,
>