From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 27652
Date: 2003-11-26
>Hey, hey, Miguel and I are not all that identical: He is completelyI'm not sure what you mean, Jens. I've been persuaded by a number of your
>impossible if one wants to persuade him of a crazy idea, no matter how
>intensely one burns for it.
>[bw]:If there's anything else, I'll keep you posted.
>I'm afraid that I may not be much help. Although I take the
>relation between PIE *septm.' and the PS word for 'seven' for granted,
>I've never been able to reconcile to myself the difficulties of getting
>from one to the other. It seems fairly obvious that if the relationship
>is true then the PIE form must have come from PS because of the presence
>of /t/ and /m/ in the former. In Semitic (as you well know) these are
>not part of the root but are additional morphology. Much of the
>difficulty comes from the presence of the /t/ which is essentially a
>feminine marker, but because of the Semitic feature of polarity in
>numbers (from 3 to 10) is actually the masculine marker in this
>numeral. But in any case, it is a marked form rather that the unmarked
>form. Why the unmarked form *saba` or *sab`u(m) wasn't taken instead
>is just a mystery to me, but then again there aren't necessarily any
>rules for what gets taken as a loan form.
>
>[mcv]:
>>The PIE word is stressed on the final syllabic nasal, which is pretty
>>peculiar, and it was suggested that this may somehow reflect the Semitic
>>accentuation of the word.
>>
>[bw]:
>I would tend to think it more likely that it has to do with the /`/ and
>its loss in PIE pulling the accent to the end, but I have no
>justification for this. One might think of the basis of the loan being
>a form *sabi`tu(m) (noun with a real feminine marker which would have
>meant something like 'a group of seven', 'heptad'). Then one could
>posit something in PIE like loss of the /`/ with compensatory lengthening
>(> *sabi:tum) drawing the accent to the /i:/ then shortening and/or loss
>of the /i:/ (> sabtúm) with the accent remaining on the ultima. This
>would have had to have happened after the borrowing into PIE because
>it is hard to think of this happening in Semitic. It's pretty hard
>to think of the elision of a stressed long vowel in any case.
>
>[mcv]:
>>As far as I can see, the accentuation in PS would have been *sab`átu(m) or
>>*sáb`atu(m), and I don't think **sab`atú(m) is a possibility. Is that
>>correct?
>[bw]:
>I would find it very difficult to accept an accent falling on the case
>ending in PS.