-m (-n)?

From: tgpedersen
Message: 27499
Date: 2003-11-22

Seems everyone agrees that PIE *septm "7" must have passed through a
Semitic languague and that the final -m comes from a mimated/nunated
form of the original word (which therefore still may be 'si pitu').
But what then of the -n of *newn and -m of *dek^m? Are they from the
same source as the -m in *septm (in which case they would be non-
Semitic numerals nunated/mimated in a Semitic (Para-Semitic?)
language)?

BTW Japanese 'subaru' "Pleiades" seems to be a loanword, and not from
Sanskrit, given the variations ('sumaru', 'suharu').

http://www2.gol.com/users/stever/subaru.htm
http://geology.wcupa.edu/mgagne/ess362/homework/constellations/pleiade
s.htm

Torsten