From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 27338
Date: 2003-11-17
> Yes it confirms trough analogyies, change of declinations & all suchThere was no Balkan Latin and (a fortiori) no Romanian prior to the
> kind of explanations we know.
> I have the feeling you see the Rom. having other Lautgesetze before
> Roman conquest and other Lautgesetze after Roman conquest.
> You can beSome words in Romanian come from the non-Latin substrate virtually
> right, but you can be wrong too. Think at the words which presents
> archaical forms comparative with Albanians and their evolution from PIE
> to the actualy form ; I am afraid you avoid to give a "just for fun"
> answer here:-)