From: m_iacomi
Message: 27240
Date: 2003-11-15
> On Sat, 15 Nov 2003 09:09:14 +0100, alex <alxmoeller@...> wrote:Of course, none. It's just another canonical alexian mistake.
>
>>Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
>
>>> On Fri, 14 Nov 2003 23:38:08 +0100, alex <alxmoeller@...>
>>> wrote:
>>>
>>>> Something strange here. Not only Alb. but even Greek seems to
>>>> have developed this "y" in "gi". At least for rom. "jura" (<
>>>> *giura) to swear, the shcolars see it as a loan from Greek.
>>>
>>> Which shcolars?
>>> Latin iu:ra:re < iouesa:- (from the same root as ju:s "law")That's what Alex reads. The actual text is: "Dr. <jur> (< <g^ur>)
>>> is not a loan from Greek.
>>
>> Rosetti shows in its ILR )1968,pag. 113) the explanation of
>> A. Philippide in "Altgrichische Elemente im Rumänischen" where
>> Rom. "jura" must be explained trough Greek "giuros"
>> ( gama-upsilon-tho-omikron-xi).
> guros (gamma-upsilon-rho-omikron-sigma). Class.Greek /gy~ros/,Of course.
> Mod. Greek /jíros/. Borrowed into Latin, verbal form gyrare >
> Spa. girar "to turn", etc. Nothing to do with iu:ra:re "to swear".