From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 27178
Date: 2003-11-14
>>>I was wondering if the original pattern wasn't something like **sab(a)túmHebrew has lost final (short) vowels, so penultimate accent becomes final.
>>
>>>*septm.', without a stress shift.
>
>>No. ...Stress on the
>>last syllable was possible in Semitic if the vowel was long, but not
>>otherwise.
>
>This is not the case in Classical Hebrew, where an accented syllable may
>have a short or long vowel, in closed or open syllable. The pattern you
>suggest is commonest, but accented short final vowels do occur, eg
>/te:ra:e'/ (Gen 1:9), /thye'/ (Ezek 23:32) /ama'r/ (passim) /&Se'r/
>(passim).
> Admittedly, this is attested somewhat later than the period of a
>borrowing from Semitic into IE. So just how sure are we of your rule in
>earlier Semitic?