From: m_iacomi
Message: 26702
Date: 2003-10-30
> 2. " You already expressed this opinion and you did not producedYou should not "feel obliged" to anything. I saw your arguments
> any valid argument to support it "
> Viewing this "assumption", I feel obliged to re-write my
> arguments (that I posted until now) here again:
> I. No Slavic loans (or nor major Slavic loans) in RomanianThe assumption is false. Even if it were true, this is no argument
> before Cyril and Methodius Bible.
> If you know such loanwords (I mean "serious ones" not like"babã" `old woman` - Sl. baba, "blid" `dish` - Sl. bljudU, "bob"
> "st^an~a", please give me a list of them).
> The Slavs arrive in Balkans after 600 or 650 so for minimum 300300 means three hundred by itself. Anyway, check your chronology.
> hundred years
> there are no major loans from Slavs in Proto-Romanian. This is aNo, it's your false statement. The Slavic influence on Proto-
> fact.
> You didn't give any explanation on this.... rather you did not understand what I said.
> II. Different rules from Latin and Slavic loans in Romanian.Well, as far as you still do not keep in mind the difference
> You didn't give a valid explanation on this (it's my opinion).
> g) Loans rules from Slavic to Romanian NOT AT ALL the same withANY
> other rule above (see e) and f))You keep comparing things which are not comparable, thus you will
> I think that this is a "clear" argument (In any case for meseems
> to be one). What do you think?See above.
> I add now a third one (thanks to Alex):It depends on what does one call "consistency". Alex is very keen
>
> Argument III. Slavic transformation rules into Romanian are
> not at all consistent (we have a lot of exceptions).
> -> This fact cannot be explained using the argument of "a longAll on the contrary. Slavic words having entered Romanian language
> interactions between Romanians and Slavic populations".
> And now I will add a 4-th one:for
>
> IV. I fully agree with you on ONLY one point:
> "The adaptation rules for Slavic loanwords" (I want to precise
> here: not for the whole process but for each loanword in part)
> " appears over a very limited amount of time" (I add here: despite
> the fact that the Slavic and Romanian populations live in Balkans
> about 1300 years).You have not understood the point. Alex quoted some rules he got
> Well, this is a very good observation. And, yes, you are right.
> But this is another fact that I will add as argument to my idea
> (By the way: I don't agree at all with the other explanations thatBTW, that's not an explanation, that's a linguistical fact.
> you put there like "not derivation rules" etc...)
> I was very surprised when somebody tells me that "A-Slavic loans"... proving you have no clue about what you're talking about.
> is not a good sample. Every sample is a good sample in my opinion
> 3. "> Unlike Slavic, most Latin words in Romanian are _not_learned
> loanwords."
> I was very surprised by hearing this assumption. In this case
> my question is: "Who learned the Latin in Balkans: the Latins (or
> the "already Latin-speaker" colonists)"?
> => No.
> => If a non-Latin population learned Latin in Balkans...
> => The learned words are "loanwords" or not? (even they
> also the morphological and syntactical Latin rules, the learnedwords
> are of course "not their own words" )That's your very original (and used by nobody) definition of
> => So they were...loanwords...
> What I also find "strange" in your email was the followingOf course it's true.
> assumption:
>
> 4. "even without any external "influence" (if that would be
> conceivable), a language undergoes changes"
> This is NOT true at all.
> Arguments:isolated
> a) First of all because ( you are right) : a "perfect
> (language) system" is not conceivable.Is that an argument for your thesis?! you make me laugh.
> b) For sure the most "isolated language systems" keep betterSo what?! Everybody knows that isolated systems usually preserve
> the old traces...I can give you some examples, if needed.
> c) Please give us an example of linguistic change withoutHmmm, what about satem/kentum?! :-)
> external influence ...I don't think that you can.
> (I agree that "Physics is not the right method" (this wasn't anWell, I suppose you never heard about inherent mutation rate in
> argument from my side... only an "expression")-> but for sure the
> Rule: "where is no external change no internal change (if any) will
> survive" is a valid one -> The Rule above is well available in any
> evolutionary system: genetics -> life, languages and also in the
> social systems.