--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Glen Gordon" <glengordon01@...>
wrote:
>
> Richard atttempts to skewer me:
> >But why should they? Are you saying, amongst other things, that:
>
> Okay... here we go, folks.
>
>
> >(a) There was no time when all significant Indo-European speakers
> >belonged to a single "culture".
>
> No, no, no! Never, ever, ever.
<Snip>
> It makes better sense if you really check out how English
developped.
I actually did consider this case.
> Any moron knows that "English" was never spoken by one single
> people or culture, nor is it in the present day.
Can you recommend a moron I could and should consult?
> It was always a grouping
> of related dialects, some of which survive to the present day,
others
> which haven't but which still may have affected the ones that have.
> It's a very complicated situation, don't you agree?
So the notion of an 'Anglo-Saxon culture' is a fabrication of the
intelligent? I suspect 850 AD may be a reasonable date to
consider. I don't think assimilating Britons would invalidate the
claim that all significant speakers of English shared an Anglo-Saxon
culture.
> >(b) There was no time when all significant Indo-European speakers
> >belonged to a single "ethnos".
>
> No, never.
I presume that you mean 'see above'. Presumably you would again say
that it was never the case that, say, during the period 850-1100, at
no time did all significant speakers of English belong to a single
ethnos. In particular, you would say that OE _Angulcynn_ did not
identify such an 'ethnos'. I will admit that the inclusion of the
Scandinavians in England changed during this period - from being a
defining outgroup to being a subgroup. (I would accept a
Yorkshireman as being in the same 'ethnos' as me, even though we
belong to different groups of Englishmen.)
Incidentally, I'd appreciate the comments of someone well-informed
on this matter (e.g. Piotr), rather than being advised to consult
morons.
>
> >(c) I am irrational if I don't subscribe to (a) and (b)?
>
> Yes, that's right. You are irrational. I'm glad we established
this :)
You are being illogical. You have merely argued that it is not
necessary for Indo-Europeans to have belonged to a single culture
and a single ethnos, not that they did not. Should I take it that
you reject the notion of Welsh speakers having ever belonged to a
single culture and a single ethnos?
Richard.