From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 26345
Date: 2003-10-11
>which is the explanation for changing of "mb" to ""ng" in Old French ifThe change is in fact /bj/ > /z^/ (sabio > saz^, cambiare > s^a~z^e, etc.).
>the Latin word have had "mb" and the celtic word (the Latin word is
>assumed to be borrowed from Celtic) have had "mb" too?
>I am speaking here about english "change" from Late Latin "cambire" via
>Old French "changier" ultimately from PIE *(s)kemb- /*kamb.
>In fact I wonder for this mb > ng since I was aware just of "ng" > "mb"
>due labialisation of the cluster.