From: merbakos
Message: 26303
Date: 2003-10-09
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "ehlsmith" <ehlsmith@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick C. Ryan" <proto-
> language@...> wrote:
> .....
> > My own view is, as a hypothesis, to seek to explain phonological
> changes are a result of changing gene frequencies in the
population
> speaking the language.
>
> and....
>
> > <PCR> In my opinion, "social change" can best be understood as
> reflecting changes in genetic composition. I have no doubt that
when,
> in certain US states, a certain critical mass of Latinos is
achieved,
> power will shift to this group, and changes in the English
phonology
> there will ensue, although national communications media will slow
> and somewhat inhibit them.
>
> Your scenario may quite possibly be true- but do you actually
believe
> that genetics would have anything to do with it?! I find it hard
to
> come up with a more classic example to demonstrate a correlation
> without causation. Certainly there are differences between the two
> populations in terms of both genetics and pronunciation, but
newborn
> infants from one population brought up by adoptive parents of the
> other population will speak like their adoptive parents, not their
> genetic parents. You might as well propose that phonological
changes
> are caused by diet or religion, or what sports one follows.
>
> Ned Smith