> [Jens:]
>> >Do we really, really know that the first syllable of apas-, opus was
>> >closed in PIE?
>
>> Why does it have to be closed? It is sufficient for it to be < H3e-,
>> for us to expect a short /a/ in Skt - which is just what we find.
>
>I meant "not closed". So your statements are based on
>the firm assumption that the root was *H3ep- ...
>how did you decide on that?
I don't wish to cause offence, but you are being silly, Jens. You can
hardly object to me misunderstanding if you miss out the word "not". And I
have never made any "firm assumptions" about apas/opus. My statement all
along is that the original, and still probably the best version of
Brugmann's Law claims that only apophonic -o- > long /a:/ in Skt. Any -o-
from other sources, it is claimed, > short /a/, (which might then be
lengthened by some other factor, as in -a:mi). This is fairly standard
stuff, I would have thought, and not worth fighting over.
I haven't made any statements about the origin of apas/opus. I agree with
you, that if the first syllable is closed, we would expect a short /a/ in
Skt, even if there were a verb form ep- meaning to work. So please don't
put words in my mouth about "firm assumptions".
Peter