The Iranian words in Armenian certainly could not, for that would
make the borrowing older than the separation of Indic and Iranian
which both have /d/ from traditional /d/ (your /t/). It would be an
incredible coincidence that such old words found their way precisely
into Armenian, the same language which also received the influx of
loanwords of specifically Iranian shape.
Germanic *ri:kia- 'Reich' could *conceivably* have been borrowed
before Celtic changed an older /k/ into /g/ in *ri:gio-, if it is
assumed that such a change occurred. For cannabis > *xampi- the
preform could have been the postulated /khan&pi-/. Not that I
believe it was ...
Jens
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "etherman23" <etherman23@...>
wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
> <piotr.gasiorowski@...> wrote:
> > 13-09-03 14:59, Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen wrote:
> >
> > > This is at variance with d > t in the earliest of the Iranian
> > > loanwords in Armenian.
> >
> > The same argument works for Germanic (early Celtic and eastern
> > loans in Germanic show b, d, g > p, t, k).
>
> Could these have been borrowed before the p > b shift?