At 7:02:18 AM on Thursday, September 18, 2003, Richard Wordingham wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
> <BMScott@...> wrote:
>> At 10:24:50 AM on Wednesday, September 17, 2003, tgpedersen wrote:
[...]
>> > http://members.aol.com/IrishWord/protocelt.htm
>> Bona fide nutters, I'm afraid. (What *do* they think
>> 'sandhi' actually means?)
> I'm not convinced they don't understand it.
Even after they write 'Since Latin and Germanic have sandhi,
sandhi-n would not necessarily account for ICM by itself'?
Here and earlier they appear to conflate 'sandhi' and
'sandhi-n', so I'm not so generous, especially after reading
things like 'This Proto-Celtic onomatopoeic logic would
enable rich oral traditions to be handed down accurately
over many generations' and
Moreover, it wasn't until the twelfth century that initial
consonantal mutation and aspiration were written in Irish.
How could there be a gap of approximately 500 years
between the change in spoken and written Irish?
My impression is that they're quite well-read but clueless.
But I'll admit that they're not in Edo Nyland's league. <g>
Brian