From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 25845
Date: 2003-09-15
On Mon, 15 Sep 2003, P&G wrote:
> >> So you do find it possible that at a period there was only one
> phonemic
> >> vowel in PIE?
> >
> >Yes. The result would be as in Sanskrit where /a/ has precisely that
> >status.
>
> I am sure you don't mean this the way it looks. Sanskrit /a/ cannot come
> from a single phonemic vowel in PIE. We know that the vowel we
> reconstruct
> as PIE */e/ caused palatalisation in Sanskrit, while the vowel we
> reconstruct as PIE */o/ did not, and that the vowel we reconstruct as PIE
> */o/ is reflected as a long /a:/ in an open syllable, whereas the vowel
> we
> reconstruct as PIE */e/ is not. This is an internal matter within
> Indo-Iranian, and cannot be taken to PIE. Indo-Iranian inherited */e a
> o/
> precisely where Greek and other IE languages demand we reconstruct these
> different vowels.
>
> What you must have meant is that a period with only one phonemic vowel
> was
> followed by a later period of PIE where at least 5 vowels can be found.
>
> Peter
>
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