Re: [tied] Thracian Sounds

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
<piotr.gasiorowski@...> wrote:

> 31-08-03 10:53, Richard Wordingham wrote:
>
> > What did Greek <pH>, <tH> and <kH> represent in Greek at the

time?

> We are essentially talking of a period during which <tH> still stood for =

> a stop, though it's hard to tell when a fricative pronunciation began to =

> creep in (probably about the first century AD, at least in the case of
> <pH>).

I'll give you a modern example, then. The Thai consonant phoneme
inventory is a superset of the Greek inventory, except that Thai /ng/
does not have a stop allophone and Thai does not have /z/. Thais can
mishear English [þ] as /s/; they do not hear it as /tH/, /t/ or /f/. The
only systematic distortion I can think of might be caused by the
existence of hushed affricates /tS/, /tSH/, but I think that that
strengthens rather than weakens my argument.

Richard.