Re: [tied] Terminology (Re: Piotr-)

Richard Wordingham wrote:

>> ... that is: the distinction operates _before_ Proto-Germanic
>> not _after_ Proto-Germanic. Thus, Proto-Germanic (and subsequently
>> deriving languages) form a class apart with respect to what was
>> before it (Pre-Germanic) and other languages not having been
>> subjected to this sound shift (the whole rest of IE -- before, as
>> well as after this sound shift).
>
> Whether or not they undergo a similar shift, e.g. (i.e.?) Thracian
> and Armenian.

Can you be a bit more explicitely concernig the thracian soundshift?


Alex